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   Verse Questions:
        1Timothy 1:10
The New American Standard bible mentions homosexuals in this verse. I wondered why all don't translate that way?  
Wednesday, September 10, 2003 12:33:16 AM   guest
      re:1Timothy 1:10   
...for them that defile themselves with mankind...

This phrase is what I think the NAS translates into "homosexuals" as (without being inside the mind of the writers of the NAS) them in the KJV often is always masculine because I think possibly in 1500's or so the women could not be thought of as "them" women had so little rights...

Stabbing at a guess... 
Saturday, December 20, 2003 3:02:26 AM godsboy

changed on Saturday, December 20, 2003 3:03:29 AM

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